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fuming .. but not sure if I should be

hi guys. so after getting thoroughly annoyed with customer support I thought I'd ask on here.

I made a bet in play on women's cricket world cup, for Indias innings to be over 349.5 runs.

they get to 48 overs out of 50, then come off for rain at 329/2. after about an hour they come back and bat 1 over and finish on 340/3 after a 1 over reduced innings of 49 overs.

now, I am not sure hence my post, but having gone through the rules and a quite useless customer support agent who seemed content to copy and paste the rules which I had already read back to me, this result which has been graded as a loss seems a bit unfair.

considering that if they had batted the last over would have needed 10 runs off 6 balls with 7 wickets in hand I would have favoured my chances.

if anyone can clarify for me why it should not be voided would be greatly appreciated. thanks.
 
Innings Runs

  • The result of this market is determined by the total number of runs scored by a team in the course of an innings.
  • Unless the result of the band has already been determined, Innings runs bets will be void if there is insufficient play in the innings as follows:
a. In test matches innings runs bets will be void if fewer than 50 overs are bowled in the innings and the team does not declare and is not all out.
b. In one day matches (other than Twenty20, T10 or The Hundred matches) innings runs bets will be void if the scheduled number of overs for the innings is reduced by 5 or more overs after the bet is placed and the team is not all out and has not reached a target to win the match.
 
Reads as though they are correct then .. no?
One day match, number of overs not lowered by five or more ... score stands as-is.
 
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