cosmicsports
Colt
So this soccer-rating.com then says this:
Team A had a rating R1 before their previous match and team B had a rating R2 before their previous match.
For the last match involving team A the finishing bookie prices were x-y-z and for the last match involving team B the finishing bookie prices were u-v-w.
So after some maths he concludes that the rating of team A becomes some R1' and that of team B becomes some R2'.
We, following the reasonings explained earlier in this thread, decide whether it is favourable or not to have a bet.
But are n't the results of those two previous matches involving A and B also affecting calculations ? I find it strange if they don't.
Team A had a rating R1 before their previous match and team B had a rating R2 before their previous match.
For the last match involving team A the finishing bookie prices were x-y-z and for the last match involving team B the finishing bookie prices were u-v-w.
So after some maths he concludes that the rating of team A becomes some R1' and that of team B becomes some R2'.
We, following the reasonings explained earlier in this thread, decide whether it is favourable or not to have a bet.
But are n't the results of those two previous matches involving A and B also affecting calculations ? I find it strange if they don't.
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